Name: 
 

Networking Review 1


True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 1. 
The simplest form of a network is a client/server network.
 

 2. 
Very large peer-to-peer networks have emerged to take advantage of the Internet.
 

 3. 
Clients on a client/server network share their resources directly with each other.
 

 4. 
To prepare to enter the networking field, a student should master a number of general networking technologies.
 

 5. 
Standards assist in network design.
 

 6. 
Network functions are associated with only one layer of the OSI model.
 

 7. 
The Application layer includes software applications.
 

 8. 
All Transport layer protocols are concerned with reliability.
 

 9. 
The strength of an electrical signal is directly proportional to its frequency.
 

 10. 
The maximum distance a signal can travel and still be interpreted accurately is equal to a segment’s maximum length.
 

 11. 
All protocols are routable.
 

 12. 
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) reports on the success or failure of data delivery.
 

 13. 
If a device does not know its own IP address, it can still use ARP.
 

 14. 
The command used to view IP information on a Windows XP or Windows Vista workstation is ifconfig.
 

 15. 
If your network does not need or use APIPA, it must be uninstalled to avoid conflicts.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
A common way of sharing resources on a peer-to-peer network is by modifying the ____ controls using the computer’s operating system.
a.
file-serving
c.
resource-sharing
b.
file-sharing
d.
resource-monitoring
 

 2. 
A ____ facilitates communication and resource sharing between other computers on the network.
a.
servlet
c.
personal computer
b.
workstation
d.
server
 

 3. 
____ networks are the most popular type of network for medium- and large-scale organizations.
a.
Client/server
c.
Stand-alone
b.
Peer-to-peer
d.
Stationary
 

 4. 
A ____ network connects clients and servers from multiple buildings.
a.
NAN
c.
WAN
b.
MAN
d.
TAN
 

 5. 
Which network topology is the most common?
a.
ring
c.
hybrid
b.
star
d.
Ethernet
 

 6. 
____ provide a Web-based client for checking e-mail.
a.
Web servers
c.
File servers
b.
Mail servers
d.
Access servers
 

 7. 
Hardware diagnosis and failure alert are handled by ____.
a.
management services
c.
access services
b.
communication services
d.
Internet services
 

 8. 
Which certification requires candidates to pass lab exams?
a.
Cisco CCIE
c.
CompTIA Network+
b.
CompTIA A+
d.
Microsoft MCSE
 

 9. 
Standards define the ____ performance of a product or service.
a.
ideal
c.
minimum acceptable
b.
most acceptable
d.
maximum acceptable
 

 10. 
The goal of ____ is to establish international technological standards to facilitate the global exchange of information and barrier free trade.
a.
ANSI
c.
ITU
b.
ISO
d.
ISOC
 

 11. 
Which statement accurately describes the OSI model?
a.
It describes how software programs interact with humans.
b.
It prescribes the type of hardware or software that should support each layer.
c.
It describes how software programs interact with other software programs.
d.
It describes a theoretical representation of what happens between two nodes communicating on a network.
 

 12. 
Which OSI model layer initiates the flow of information?
a.
Physical
c.
Application
b.
Session
d.
Presentation
 

 13. 
Which type of protocol is useful when data must be transferred quickly?
a.
connection-oriented
c.
TCP
b.
connectionless
d.
IP
 

 14. 
Transport layer protocols break large data units into ____.
a.
PDUs
c.
frames
b.
segments
d.
block IDs
 

 15. 
____ is the process of reconstructing segmented data.
a.
Reassembly
c.
Resegmenting
b.
Reengineering
d.
Realigning
 

 16. 
In which OSI model layer does IP operate?
a.
Physical
c.
Network
b.
Transport
d.
Data Link
 

 17. 
Which Data Link sublayer manages access to the physical medium?
a.
LLC
c.
Management layer
b.
MAC
d.
Addressing layer
 

 18. 
In which OSI model layer(s) do NICs operate?
a.
Physical
c.
Data Link
b.
Network and Physical
d.
Physical and Data Link
 

 19. 
Which IEEE standard describes Ethernet?
a.
802.1
c.
802.5
b.
802.3
d.
802.11
 

 20. 
The distance between corresponding points on a wave’s cycle is called its ____.
a.
amplitude
c.
phase
b.
frequency
d.
wavelength
 

 21. 
A digital signal composed of a pulse of positive voltage represents a ____.
a.
0
c.
4
b.
1
d.
8
 

 22. 
The byte 00001110 means ____ on a digital network.
a.
3
c.
14
b.
6
d.
30
 

 23. 
In modulation, a simple wave called a ____ wave, is combined with another analog signal to produce a unique signal that gets transmitted from one node to another.
a.
carrier
c.
information
b.
data
d.
FM
 

 24. 
When signals are free to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously, the transmission is considered ____.
a.
simplex
c.
half-duplex
b.
multiplex
d.
full-duplex
 

 25. 
One of the most common transmission flaws affecting data signals is ____.
a.
noise
c.
throughput
b.
attenuation
d.
latency
 

 26. 
Modern LANs use ____ or higher wiring.
a.
Cat 3
c.
RG-6
b.
Cat 5
d.
RG-59
 

 27. 
Which connector is used in RS-232 transmissions?
a.
DB-25
c.
BNC
b.
ST
d.
Cat-5
 

 28. 
Which term describes the hardware that makes up the enterprise-wide cabling system?
a.
wiring board
c.
network diagram
b.
patch panel
d.
cable plant
 

 29. 
Which standard is also known as structured cabling?
a.
TIA/EIA Commercial Building Wiring Standard
b.
TIA/EIA RS-232 (Recommended Standard 232)
c.
TIA/EIA 568A Standard
d.
TIA/EIA 568BA Standard
 

 30. 
The points where circuits interconnect with other circuits is known as ____.
a.
entrance facilities
c.
IDF (intermediate distribution frame)
b.
cross-connect facilities
d.
telecommunications closet
 

 31. 
Many network problems can be traced to poor cable ____ techniques.
a.
manufacturing
c.
installation
b.
engineering
d.
planning
 

 32. 
The subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network through a router is ____.
a.
TCP
c.
UDP
b.
ICMP
d.
IP
 

 33. 
In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number.
a.
12-bit
c.
64-bit
b.
32-bit
d.
128-bit
 

 34. 
In IPv4 addressing, an IP address whose first octet is in the range of 192–223 belongs to a Class ____ network.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 35. 
In most cases, BOOTP has been surpassed by the more sophisticated IP addressing utility, ____.
a.
DNS
c.
DHCP
b.
RARP
d.
APIPA
 

 36. 
A(n) ____ address represents any one interface from a group of interfaces, any one of which can accept a transmission.
a.
anycast
c.
multicast
b.
unicast
d.
singlecast
 

 37. 
In IPv6, each address contains a(n) ____, or a variable-length field at the beginning of the address that indicates what type of address it is.
a.
Variable Prefix
c.
Format Prefix
b.
Address Prefix
d.
Field Prefix
 

 38. 
____ is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts using the TCP/IP protocol suite.
a.
NNTP
c.
Telnet
b.
NTP
d.
FTP
 

 39. 
____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.
a.
NNTP
c.
PING
b.
NTP
d.
ARP
 

 40. 
____ is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network.
a.
ARP
c.
Telnet
b.
PING
d.
FTP
 

Short Answer
 

 1. 
Describe license tracking in networks.
 

 2. 
Describe considerations to take into account when evaluating if a professional organization is appropriate for an individual.
 

 3. 
Define and describe sequencing.
 

 4. 
Describe a network address including its addressing scheme, formats and alternate names.
 

 5. 
Define and describe the two parts of a MAC address.
 

 6. 
Describe variables that may influence the final cost of implementing a certain type of media.
 

 7. 
Explain the makeup of coaxial cable.
 

 8. 
In IPv4 addressing, explain what is special about an address containing 127 in the first octet and how this address is used in troubleshooting.
 

 9. 
Explain one way in which BOOTP and RARP are similar. Then describe two ways in which they are different.
 

 10. 
Describe the size differences in IPv4 and IPv6 IP addresses.
 



 
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